"Does the 'Bible' say Jesus spent time in hell before he was risen on the third day? He was not a sinner! Since it's Easter, I've seen a few postings about it. The Apostles Creed said he did, but he never sinned. Just wondered if you had a comment on it?"
This question, above, was put to me by a fellow on the monastery website. My answer to him was that the subject might make an interesting post. The Apostles' Creed does, as stated, mention it, although there is no precedence to explain why they have it there other that several passages in the Bible, which are open to interpretation, alluding to this descent. I would have to say, as my first blush, I see no reason why Christ would not pay a visit, if for no other reason than to remind Satan about God's omnipotence and dominion. The Bible skirts the issue, and for good reason in my humble opinion - Jesus never said He visited hell when he reappeared prior to leaving for the Kingdom of Heaven. To me, this is a circumstance where we must all use a bit of our own faith.
Now, the church would have us celebrate this supposed descent on Holy Saturday. To their explanation, Christ entered hell while his mortal remains rested in the crypt. This was not a condemnation, where He entered for any slight of morality; He entered as a reminder of God's greatness and ultimate dominion over hell. So, if He went, He did not do so in the proverbial "handbasket." Though I can see reason, in this context, to go as a victor, did it really serve any purpose other than as another bedtime fable for children?
One would think that, as with other important events, if He had gone to harrow hell, this would be something He would have mentioned in some detail to the apostles upon His return and prior to ascension. He did not. It seems the only solid reference to the tale can be found in 1 Peter 3:13-20. No, I am not going to type the entire reference so grab a Bible and practice reading for a change. In this reference it is easy to see how one can interpret anything to mean what you want. Did Jesus physically or, more appropriately, spiritually go to preach to the spirits, or did he simply visit the minds of the condemned to see who was repentant and worthy of salvation?
This overall omission of any direct statement of the event by an ascending Christ, accomplishes nothing toward the truth but to leave the possibility of it in the imagination of man, and we all know what man's imagination can do with a good yarn - we spin it.
Did Jesus go to hell? Did He not go through hell here on earth? Wasn't the passion enough? Or, as my mother would ask, is there really a "hell" per se, or is the hell we go through a personal time to reflect on all we have or have not done? I have to disagree with her on this due to my brush with the eastern philosophies. There must be a yin and yang. For everything there is an opposite. Where there is the Kingdom of Heaven for the righteous, there must be a Kingdom of Eternal Damnation for the evil. Would evildoers simply get to reflect on crimes against humanity? Hers is a kinder gentler damnation that only a mother could imagine, but wasn't this forgiveness and love exactly what Christ was here to teach? And did He not, according to the "tale" of the harrowing, release those bound to hell as proof of God's forgiveness?
Perhaps the stories alluded to in the Bible were based on information passed by Christ which simply didn't make it into scripture. In actuality, the only firm reference in in the Gospel of Nicodemus, an apocryphal gospel, one that didn't make the cut for biblical inclusion. When one is allowed to pick and choose those items deemed "worthy" of inclusion, it would be easy to see how some important ideas and events might be excluded. This is another example of why I have issues with the validity of scripture. Unless we have the entire story, the entire collective works of the period, to draw from, we are left with assumptions, suppositions, and faith.
Did He go? I would like to think so. Is there any substantial proof that He mentioned this to the faithful? Not yet.
Editor's Note:
Before you go getting your panties in a bunch, it is essential to understand that this is just an opinion site and, as such, can be subjected to scrutiny by anyone with a differing opinion. It doesn't make either opinion any more right or wrong than the other. An opinion, presented in this context, is a way of inciting others to think and, hopefully, to form opinions of their own, if they haven't already done so.
It is my fervent hope that we keep open and active minds when reading opinions and then engaging in peaceful, constructive, discussion and debate in an arena of mutual respect concerning the opinions put forth. After over twenty years as a military intelligence analyst, planner, and briefer, I have come to believe engaging each other in this manner and in this arena is the way we will learn tolerance and respect for differing beliefs, cultures, and viewpoints.
We all fall from grace, some more often than others; it is part of being human. God's test for us is what we do afterward, and what we learn from the experience.
This question, above, was put to me by a fellow on the monastery website. My answer to him was that the subject might make an interesting post. The Apostles' Creed does, as stated, mention it, although there is no precedence to explain why they have it there other that several passages in the Bible, which are open to interpretation, alluding to this descent. I would have to say, as my first blush, I see no reason why Christ would not pay a visit, if for no other reason than to remind Satan about God's omnipotence and dominion. The Bible skirts the issue, and for good reason in my humble opinion - Jesus never said He visited hell when he reappeared prior to leaving for the Kingdom of Heaven. To me, this is a circumstance where we must all use a bit of our own faith.
Now, the church would have us celebrate this supposed descent on Holy Saturday. To their explanation, Christ entered hell while his mortal remains rested in the crypt. This was not a condemnation, where He entered for any slight of morality; He entered as a reminder of God's greatness and ultimate dominion over hell. So, if He went, He did not do so in the proverbial "handbasket." Though I can see reason, in this context, to go as a victor, did it really serve any purpose other than as another bedtime fable for children?
One would think that, as with other important events, if He had gone to harrow hell, this would be something He would have mentioned in some detail to the apostles upon His return and prior to ascension. He did not. It seems the only solid reference to the tale can be found in 1 Peter 3:13-20. No, I am not going to type the entire reference so grab a Bible and practice reading for a change. In this reference it is easy to see how one can interpret anything to mean what you want. Did Jesus physically or, more appropriately, spiritually go to preach to the spirits, or did he simply visit the minds of the condemned to see who was repentant and worthy of salvation?
This overall omission of any direct statement of the event by an ascending Christ, accomplishes nothing toward the truth but to leave the possibility of it in the imagination of man, and we all know what man's imagination can do with a good yarn - we spin it.
Did Jesus go to hell? Did He not go through hell here on earth? Wasn't the passion enough? Or, as my mother would ask, is there really a "hell" per se, or is the hell we go through a personal time to reflect on all we have or have not done? I have to disagree with her on this due to my brush with the eastern philosophies. There must be a yin and yang. For everything there is an opposite. Where there is the Kingdom of Heaven for the righteous, there must be a Kingdom of Eternal Damnation for the evil. Would evildoers simply get to reflect on crimes against humanity? Hers is a kinder gentler damnation that only a mother could imagine, but wasn't this forgiveness and love exactly what Christ was here to teach? And did He not, according to the "tale" of the harrowing, release those bound to hell as proof of God's forgiveness?
Perhaps the stories alluded to in the Bible were based on information passed by Christ which simply didn't make it into scripture. In actuality, the only firm reference in in the Gospel of Nicodemus, an apocryphal gospel, one that didn't make the cut for biblical inclusion. When one is allowed to pick and choose those items deemed "worthy" of inclusion, it would be easy to see how some important ideas and events might be excluded. This is another example of why I have issues with the validity of scripture. Unless we have the entire story, the entire collective works of the period, to draw from, we are left with assumptions, suppositions, and faith.
Did He go? I would like to think so. Is there any substantial proof that He mentioned this to the faithful? Not yet.
Editor's Note: Before you go getting your panties in a bunch, it is essential to understand that this is just an opinion site and, as such, can be subjected to scrutiny by anyone with a differing opinion. It doesn't make either opinion any more right or wrong than the other. An opinion, presented in this context, is a way of inciting others to think and, hopefully, to form opinions of their own, if they haven't already done so.
It is my fervent hope that we keep open and active minds when reading opinions and then engaging in peaceful, constructive, discussion and debate in an arena of mutual respect concerning the opinions put forth. After over twenty years as a military intelligence analyst, planner, and briefer, I have come to believe engaging each other in this manner and in this arena is the way we will learn tolerance and respect for differing beliefs, cultures, and viewpoints.
We all fall from grace, some more often than others; it is part of being human. God's test for us is what we do afterward, and what we learn from the experience.
Pastor Frank Anthony Villari
Pastor Tony is founder of the Congregation for Religious Tolerance and author/editor of the Congregation's official blog site, "The Path."
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